Prime Reciprocal Series with Blackpenredpen (Oxford Maths Interview Question)

2 comments

  1. I just stumbled upon the YouTube channel and enjoy the videos. I wanted to ask why (given what’s written on the board at 16:51), we can’t pull out the Pi part outside of the summation (as it’s not dependent on K) and then simply say that this entire summation diverges as we have a sum of an infinite
    number of values greater than 1 (since there are an infinite number of primes) multiplied by the pi^2/2 thing from the Basel Problem.

    And, I did read some comments from the YouTube video that suggests there was something weird with the removal of the “1 +” part of 1 + 1/p as it seems like that would lead to convergence (i.e. the 1+ part is required to show the proof).

    I am not a mathematician, and I’m not trying to detract from the usefulness and entertainment of the videos. I just want to learn where I’ve gone wrong in my thinking or if there was a mistake in the proof (as shown in the video).

    Thanks to anyone for any replies/comments.

    Like

Leave a reply to Wayne Cancel reply